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GE3792 Industrial Management Important Questions

GE3792 Industrial Management Important Questions

Part A

1. Define Management and Partnership.
2. What are the benefits of Sole Proprietorship?
3. Differentiate Centralization and Decentralization.
4. What is meant by departmentation by time?

5. What are the objectives of Leading?
6. Define Audit with an example.
7. How will you define Organizational Conflict?
8. Differentiate between Intra Group and Inter Group.
9. What are the factors of Production?
10. How will you define Land and Capital Productivity?

Part B

  1. Discuss the various approaches to the study of management.
  2. How will you define forms of organization? Explain the principles of Taylor, Fayol and Weber.
  3. Explain the various types of departmentation in detail.
  4. What would you need to know to plan an organization structure “good”? How does good organization structure support leadership? How will you promote an appropriate organization culture?
  5.  Discuss in detail the Managerial grid (Blake-Mounton and Reddin) Models with examples.
  6. Explain the important steps followed in preventive control.
  7. Describe the Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory with an example.
  8. Explain any two theories of motivation other than Maslow’s need theory.
  9. Explain in detail the implementation procedure of BPR and Benchmarking.
  10. Write short notes for the following:
    (i) SWOT/SWOC Analysis
    (ii) TPM
    (iii) MIS
  11. Discuss the implementation procedure of ERP in an auto ancillary company.
  12.  Assume that you are a HR manager in a consulting company how will you do the recruitment process in staff selection? Show the details in the form of report.
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ME3691 Heat and Mass Transfer Important Questions

ME3691 Heat and Mass Transfer Important Questions

Part A

2. What is meant by Lumped System analysis?
3. Write the physical significance of the Nusselt number.
4. How does the Rayleigh number differ from the Grashof number?
5. Differentiate between pool boiling and flow boiling?
6. Sketch the Variation of the fluid temperatures in a parallel-flow double-pipe heat exchanger.
7. Define: Emissivity.
8. Specify the purpose of radiation shield.
9. Give examples for liquid-to-gas mass transfer and solid-to liquid mass transfer.

10. State Fick’s Law of Diffusion.

PART B

  1. The wall of a cold storage consists of three layers: an outer layer of ordinary bricks, 25 cm thick, a middle layer of cork, 10 cm thick and an inner layer of cement, 6 cm thick. The thermal conductivities of the materials are 0.7, 0.043 and 0.72 W/m.K, respectively. The temperature of the outer surface of the wall is 30°C and that of inner is 15°C. Calculate: (i) Steady state rate of heat gain per unit area, (ii) Temperature at the interfaces of composite wall, (iii) What additional thickness of cork should be provided to reduce the heat gain 30% less than the present value?
  2. Consider two finned surfaces that are identical except that the fins. on the first surface are formed by casting or extrusion, whereas they are attached to the second surface afterwards by welding or tight fitting. For which case do you think the fins will provide greater enhancement in heat transfer? Explain. (3)
  3. In a quenching process, a copper plate of 3 mm thick is heated upto 350 deg * C and then suddenly, it is dropped into a water bath at 25 deg * C . Calculate the time required for the plate to reach the temperature of 50 deg * C The heat transfer coefficient on the surface of the plate is 28 W/m²K. The plate dimensions may be taken as length 40 cm and width 30 cm. Also calculate the time required for infinite long plate to cool to 50 deg * C Other parameters remain same. Take the properties of copper as C= 380J / k * g .K rho = 8800kg / (m ^ 3) k= 385W / m .K . (10)
  4. Explain the development of the velocity boundary layer for flow over a flat plate, and the different flow regimes. (6)
  5. Air at a local atmospheric pressure of 83.4 kPa and 20 deg * C flows with a velocity of 8 m/s over a 1.5m * 6 m flat plate whose temperature is 140 deg * C Determine the rate of heat transfer from the plate if the air flows parallel to the 6-m-long side. (7)
  6. Explain thermally developing region and thermal entry length for flow in a circular tube. (6)
  7. A 6-m-long section of an 8-cm-diameter horizontal hot water pipe passes through a large room whose temperature is 20 deg C. If the outer surface temperature of the pipe is 70 deg * C determine the rate of heat loss from the pipe by natural convection.
  8. Discuss the various regimes of pool boiling. (7)
  9. A vertical tube of 6.5 cm outside diameter and 1.5 m long is exposed to steam at atmospheric pressure. The outer surface of the tube is maintained at a temperature of 60°C by circulating cold water through tube. Calculate the rate of heat transfer to the coolant. Take latent heat of condensation 2256.9 kJ/kg. (6)
  10. Explain how the &-NTU method is superior to the LMTD method and derive an expression for the effectiveness of a parallel flow heat exchanger. (13)
  11. An industrial furnace (black body) emitting radiation at 2650°C. Calculate the following quantities:
    (i) Spectral emissive power at 2 = 1.2 µm,
    (ii) Wavelength at which the emissive power is maximum,
    (iii) Maximum spectral emissive power,
    (iv) Total emissive power, and
    (v) Total emissive power of the furnace, if it is treated as gray and diffuse body with an emissivity of 0.9.
  12. Two large parallel planes with emissivity 0.6 are at 900 K and 300 K. A radiation shield with one side polished and having emissivity of 0.05, while the emissivity of other side is 0.4 is proposed to be used. Which side of the shield to face the hotter plane, if the temperature of shield is to be kept minimum? Justify your answer. (13)
  13. An open pan 20 cm in diameter 20 mm deep is filled with water to a level of 10 mm and is exposed to air at 25°C. Assuming mass diffusivity of 0.25×10 m²/s, calculate the time required for all the water to evaporate. Take The partial pressure of water vapour, corresponding to saturation temperature of 25°C as 3.169 kPa. (13)
  14. The water in a 5mx15m outdoor swimming pool is maintained at a temperature of 27°C. The average ambient temperature and relative humidity are 27°C and 40%, respectively. Assuming a wind speed of 2 m/s in the direction of long side of the pool, estimate the mass transfer coefficient for the evaporation of water from the pool surface.
  15. Cold water at 1495 kg/h enters at 25 deg * C through a parallel flow heat exchanger to cool 605 kg/h of hot water entering at 70 deg * C and leaving at 50 deg * C The individual convective heat transfer coefficients on both sides are 1590 W/m².K Using LMTD method, find the area of the heat exchanger.
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ME3493 Manufacturing Technology Important Questions

ME3493 Manufacturing Technology Important Questions

Unit 1

  1. What are the advantages of using cutting fluids during machining? What are the basic requirements of cutting fluids? Name some of the commonly used types of cutting fluids.
  2. Differentiate between oblique and orthogonal cutting with suitable schematic diagrams. Also write a note on types of chips produced during oblique cutting.
  3. List and illustrate the major material properties required of cutting tool.
  4. Explain what is meant by the term machinability and what it involves. Why does titanium have poor machinability?
  5. Describe effect of temperature on tool life.
  6. Explain why continuous chips are not necessarily desirable.
  7. Comment on the role and importance of the relief angle.
  8. Explain in detail the following:
    (i) Formation of different types of chips.
    (ii) Types of cutting fluids.
  9.  Describe with neat sketches for force relationship in orthogonal cutting.

Unit 2

  1. Draw tool and workpiece geometry during turning operation. Mark all cutting forces. Describe how different factors influences cutting forces in turning operations.
    If a 125 mm long, 10 mm diameter 304 stainless steel rod is being reduced in diameter to 9 mm by turning on a lathe. The spindle rotates at 360 rpm, and tool is travelling at an axial speed of 1.75 mm/min. Calculate the cutting time required to complete the machining. If specific energy required during machining stainless-steel is 4 W-s/mm³, calculate the power dissipated during machining.
  2. List the types of machining operations that can be performed on a lathe. (5)
  3. Locate compound rest on lathe machine with sketch. (4)
  4. Briefly discuss about compound rest and cross slide.
  5. Give a sketch illustrating the principle of operation of the Swiss-type automatic screw machine and brief their advantages and limitations.
  6. Draw neat sketches and explain any four work-holding devices in the lathe.
  7. Estimate the machining time required to rough turn a 0.50-m-long annealed copper-alloy round bar from a 60-mm diameter to a 58-mm diameter, using a high-speed steel tool. Estimate the time required for an uncoated carbide tool. (6)
  8. A high-strength cast-iron bar 200 mm in diameter is being turned on a lathe at a depth of cut d = 1.25 mm. The lathe is equipped with a 12-kW electric motor and has a mechanical efficiency of 80%. The spindle speed is 500 rpm. Estimate the maximum feed that can be used before the lathe begins to stall?

Unit 3

  1. Grinding wheel characteristics or the performance of a grinding wheel depends on type of abrasive, grain size, grade, structure and bonding materials. Discuss the effect of each. Also select proper grinding wheel for cylindrical grinding of cast iron work piece.
  2. Draw the schematic representation of milling cutter, mark all necessary parts and angles. Also draw axis coordinate system for vertical and horizontal milling centres. Identify basic parts of milling machines.
  3. Explain why milling is such a versatile machining operation.
  4. Describe the different types of cutters used in milling operations and give an application of each type. (9)
  5. Explain why the axis of a hob is tilted with respect to the axis of the gear blank. (6)
  6. A single-thread hob is used to cut 40 teeth on a spur gear. The cutting speed is 35 m/min and the hob is 75 mm in diameter. calculate the rotational speed of the spur gear.
  7. Describe with neat sketches, the quick return mechanism of a shaper. (9)
  8. Differentiate the up-milling from down-milling process.
  9.  Discuss the three types of feed in a centreless grinding machine.
  10. Explain wheel truing and dressing.

Unit 4

  1. Identify the differences between mechanization and automation.
  2. Define numerical control machines with example.
  3. Discuss the following CNC control systems with a neat sketch.
    (i) Closed loop system and open loop system.
    (ii) Straight-line system
    (iii) Continuous system
  4. Define constructional features of CNC machine tools.
  5. Explain open-loop and closed-loop control circuits with sketch.
  6. Describe the factors that have led to the development of numerical control.
  7. What are the basic components of NC system? Discuss with the help of their functions. With neat diagram differentiate between open and close loop control system, point-to-point and continuous positioning systems in CNC machines.
  8. List out the basic CNC machine elements, discuss their functions. Also write a note on interpolation methods and their applications.

Unit 5



  • Define significance of computer-integrated manufacturing operations.
  • Explain with flow chart of setting up a CNC machine for machining in lathe.
  • Define terms fixed cycles, loops and subroutine in computer numerical control machine.
  • Differentiate the terms computer aided and computer integrated.
  • Describe manual part programming with examples.
  • Explain in detail the following:
    (i) Interpolators and their types.
    (ii) Absolute and incremental coordinate systems.
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ME3492 Hydraulics and Pneumatics Important Questions

ME3492 Hydraulics and Pneumatics Important Questions

Unit 1

  1. The system shown in Figure 11 (a) contains a hydraulic pump delivering high pressure oil of specific gravity 0.9 and kinematic viscosity 1.25 * 10 ^ – 4 * m ^ 2 / s to a hydraulic motor. A 25 m pipe of internal diameter 30 mm and thickness of 10 mm connects the pump and motor. The pipe has two elbow fittings (k = 0.7) and one check valve (k = 4) The motor is placed 10 m above the pump. The pressure required to drive the loaded motor is 40 bar. Determine the pump discharge pressure, if the discharge from the pump is 180 lpm 

  2. Explain any six desirable properties of hydraulic oil used for industrial automation.
  3. Mention the criteria for selection of such fluids for hydraulic applications.
  4. What are some potential implications of Pascal’s Law for the design and operation of hydraulic systems, and how might these implications influence the decision-making process of engineers and technicians in this field? Explain.
  5. With a neat sketch, explain the working principle, construction, application, and limitation of an unbalanced vane pump.
  6. A hydraulic cylinder is to compress a body down to bale size in 10s. The operation requires a 3 m stroke and a 40000 N force. If a 10 MPa pump has been selected, assuming the cylinder to be 100% efficient, find
    (i) The required piston area
    (ii) The necessary pump flow rate
    (iii) The hydraulic power delivered to the cylinder
    (iv) The output power delivered to the load
    (v) Also, solve parts (i) to (iv) assuming a 400 N friction force and a leakage of 1 LPM. What is the efficiency of the cylinder with the given friction force and leakage?
  7. A pump has a displacement volume of 120 cm³. It delivers 0.0015 m³/s at 1440 RPM and 60 bar. If the prime mover input torque is 130 Nm.
    (i) What is the overall efficiency of the pump?
    (ii) What is the theoretical torque required to operate the pump?(iii) The pump is driven by an electric motor having an overall efficiency of 88%. The hydraulic system operates 12 hours/day for 250 days per year. The cost of electricity is Rs 8 per kWh. Determine the yearly cost of electricity to operate the hydraulic system.

Unit 2

  1. Explain the working principle of 4/2 solenoid operated direction control valve for hydraulic applications.
  2. With neat circuits, explain the application of any four pressure control valves.
  3. Classify the flow control valve with examples and how it is different from direction control valves.
  4.  What are some Key factors to consider when selecting a hydraulic actuator for a specific application, and how might these factors influence the performance and efficiency of the overall hydraulic system? Explain.
  5. A vertical punching machine requires a hydraulic valve to prevent the piston from free falling due to gravity’ with a neat sketch, design a hydraulic circuit appropriate for this application. Also, explain the construction and working principle of the hydraulic valve.
  6. A hydraulic motor receives a flow rate of 72 LPM at a pressure of 12000 kPa. If the motor speed is 800 RPM and if the motor has power loss of 3 kW, find the motor’s actual output torque and overall efficiency.
  7. Define the displacement and torque ratings of a hydraulic motor.
  8. Why the torque output from a fixed-displacement hydraulic motor operating at constant pressure is the same regardless of speed changes?

Unit 3

  1. With neat circuits explain the four applications of an accumulator in hydraulic circuits.
  2. What is the condition for the speeds of extension and retraction strokes to be equal? Design hydraulic circuit accordingly.
  3. A hydraulic cylinder is to compress a car body in 20 seconds. The operation requires a stroke of 6 m and a force of 60,000N. If a 10 N/mm² pump has been selected, then calculate the pump flow and hydraulic power capacity in kW.
  4. What are some potential advantages and disadvantages of using open-loop versus closed-loop hydraulic systems? How may these variables, affect the decision to choose a given system for a particular application? Explain.
  5. Design the circuits for the following applications:
    (i) Synchronous actuation of two similar hydraulic actuators
    (ii) Fail-Safe Operation
    (iii) Regenerative
  6. With a block diagram explain the working of electro-hydraulic servo valves. (6)
  7. What are proportional valves? Explain how to control the force and spool position in proportional hydraulic valves.

Unit 4

  1. How do electro-pneumatic systems differ from purely pneumatic systems, and what are some advantages and disadvantages of using electro-pneumatic systems? Explain.
  2. What is the cascade method of designing fluid power circuits, and how does it differ from other methods of circuit design? Explain.
  3. Design a pneumatic sequencing circuit for the sequence A+ A- B+ B-C+ C-using cascade method.
  4.  Elaborate on the working of regulator and lubricator in a pneumatic FRL unit.
  5. Construct a pneumatic sequential circuit for the sequence A+B+B-C-C+A using the cascade method and incorporate a cycle selection module.
  6. Badges are to be produced from a very thin metal sheet. A press with a stamping die is available for this purpose. The double-acting cylinder should extend when both the push buttons S1 and S2 are pressed simultaneously. The return stroke is to occur automatically only after the forward end position and preset pressure have been reached to get consistent quality. The cylinder should immediately retract if the emergency push button S3 is pressed. Draw an electro-pneumatic ladder diagram for the above application.

Unit 5

  1. Discuss the criteria for the selection of cylinders.
  2. Briefly explain the important factors in the maintenance of hydraulic and pneumatic systems.
  3. Draw the schematic layout of a typical hydraulic power pack and explain the function of its elements.
  4. Discuss compressors and their classifications in detail. Also, discuss the various stages of air treatment.
  5. How can a systematic troubleshooting approach be applied to identify and resolve common problems that arise in hydraulic and pneumatic systems, and what are some examples of real-world applications where this approach has been successfully implemented? Explain.
  6. What are some basic factors that should be considered when selecting a low cost automation technique for a specific industrial application, and why are these factors important? Explain.
  7. Sketch and explain the elements in a hydraulics power pack.
  8. An industry is interested in developing a hydraulic drilling machine to drill 10 mm thick steel plates. Since, the cycle time of the process has to be minimum, faster approach and retraction strokes are essential. A powerpack with a single pump system is already available with the industry and hence the same is proposed to be used. As an automation engineer, develop an appropriate circuit to achieve the above objectives. Justify that the extension velocity is faster than in the conventional hydraulic circuit and derive the expression for velocity ratio.
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ME3451 Thermal Engineering Important Questions

ME3451 Thermal Engineering Important Questions

Unit 1

  1. The boiler produces dry and saturated steam at 30 bar. The steam expands in the turbine to a condenser pressure of 20 kPa. Compare the cyclic work done and thermal efficiency of Carnot and Rankine cycles for these conditions.
  2. A Diesel engine has an inlet temperature and pressure of 17°C and 1 bar, respectively. The compression ratio is 15 and the maximum cycle temperature is 1400 K. Calculate the air-standard efficiency of the Diesel cycle. Take y = 1.4.
  3. In an ideal Brayton cycle, air is compressed from 1 bar to a pressure ratio of 6. Calculate the cyclic efficiency. If the ratio of lower to upper temperature is 0.3 then calculate the work ratio.
  4. The pressure ratio and maximum temperature of a Brayton cycle are 5:1 and 923 K, respectively. Air enters the compressor at 1 bar and 298 K. Calculate for 1 kg of air flow, the compressor work, turbine work and the efficiency of the cycle.
  5. The maximum pressure and temperature in an Otto cycle are 10 kPa and 27 deg * C The amount of heat added to the air per cycle is 1500 kJ/kg.
    (i) Determine the pressure and temperatures and pressures at all points of the air standard Otto cycle.
    (ii) Calculate the specific work and thermal efficiency of the cycle for a compression ratio of 8:1.
    Take for air: C_{v} = 0.72kJ / k  gK and gamma = 1.4
  6. In an engine working on Dual cycle, the temperature and pressure at the beginning of the cycle are 90 deg * C and 1 bar respectively. The compression ratio is 9.2. The maximum pressure is limited to 68 bar and total heat supplied per kg of air is 1750 kJ. Calculate:
    (i) Pressure and temperature at all salient points
    (ii) Air standard efficiency
    (iii) Mean effective pressure.
  7. For the same compression ratio, prove that the efficiency of the Otto cycle is greater than that of the diesel cycle.
  8. In an air standard diesel cycle with a compression ratio of 14, the condition of air at the start of the compression stroke are 1 bar and 300 K. After addition of heat at constant pressure, the temperature rises to 2775 K. Determine the thermal efficiency of the cycle, network done per kg of air.

Unit 2

  1. Explain the significance of critical pressure ratios in steam nozzles.
  2. Illustrate how variations in mass flow rate with pressure ratios impact the overall efficiency of the system.
  3.  A nozzle is to be designed to expand steam at the rate of 0.10 kg/s from 500 kPa, 210°C to 100 kPa. Neglect inlet velocity of steam. For a nozzle efficiency of 0.9, determine the exit area of the nozzle.
  4. Calculate the critical pressure and throat area per unit mass-flow rate of steam, expanding through a convergent-divergent nozzle from 10 bar, dry saturated, down to atmospheric pressure of 1 bar. Assume that the inlet velocity is negligible, and that the expansion is isentropic.
  5. Steam at a pressure of 10.5 bar and 0.95 dry is expanded through a convergent divergent nozzle. The pressure of steam leaving the nozzle is 0.85 bar. Find the velocity of steam at the throat for maximum discharge. Take Also find the area at the exit and steam discharge if the n = 1.135 throat area is 1.2c * m ^ 2 Assume flow is isentropic and there are no friction losses.
  6. Brief the following in case of steam nozzles:
    (i) Critical pressure ratio
    (ii) Effect of friction
    (iii) Metastable flow and its effect.
  7.  Calculate the critical pressure ratio and throat area per unit mass flow rate of steam, expanding through a convergent-divergent steam nozzle from 10 bar, dry saturated down to atmospheric pressure of 1 bar. Assume that the inlet velocity is negligible and that the expansion is isentropic.
  8. A nozzle is to be designed to expand steam at the rate of 0.1 kg/sec from 500 kPa, 210°C to 100 kPa. Neglect the inlet velocity of steam. For a nozzle efficiency of 0.9, determine the exit area of the nozzle.

Unit 3

  1. Discuss the principles of compounding and governing to optimize the performance of a gas turbine with its significance.
  2. Compare regenerative, intercooled, and reheat cycles in terms of how each enhance gas turbine performance individually.
  3. The gas turbine has an overall pressure ratio of 5:1 and the maximum cycle temperature is 550°C. The turbine drives the compressor and an electric generator, the mechanical efficiency of the drive being 97%. The ambient temperature is 20 he turbine drives the compressor and an electric 20°C and the isentropic efficiencies for the compressor and the turbine are 0.8 and 0.83 respectively. Calculate the power output in megawatts for an air flow of 15 kg/s. Also calculate the thermal efficiency and work ratio.
    Neglect the changes in kinetic energy and loss of pressure in combustion chamber.
  4. A steam power plant operates on an ideal reheat Rankine cycle between the pressure limits of 15 MPa and 10 kPa. The mass flow rate of steam through the cycle is 12kg/s. Steam enters both stages of the turbine at 500°C. If the moisture content of the steam at the exit of the low-pressure turbine is not to exceed 10%, determine the following.
    (i) Reheat pressure
    (ii) Heat input to the Boiler
    (iii) Thermal efficiency of the cycle. Represent the cycle on T-s diagram.
  5. In a gas turbine power plant, air enters the compressor at 15°C and it is compressed through a pressure ratio of 4 with isentropic efficiency of 85%. The air-fuel ratio is 80 and the calorific value of the fuel is 42,000 kJ/kg. The turbine inlet temperature is 1000 K and the isentropic efficiency of the turbine is 82%. Find the overall plant efficiency.
  6. Explain the concept of advanced techniques adapted in gas turbine power plant with neat line schematic diagram. Also represent the cycle in all P-v, T-s and h-s diagrams. Give merits of the advance techniques.

Unit 4

  1. Define the detonation. Give its effects on Spark Ignition Engines.
  2. Explain the working principle of simple carburetor with neat sketch. Give its limitations.
  3. What do you mean by knocking? Describe the phenomenon of knocking in SI engine. What are the factors affect the knocking? How can it be controlled?
  4. Explain the different types of combustion chambers used in CI engines.
  5.  Compare valve and port timing diagrams for internal combustion engines, highlighting differences in their operational characteristics and efficiency.
  6.  Differentiate the operating characteristics of SI and CI engines by emphasizing the combustion processes, fuel delivery, and ignition mechanisms.
  7. Explain influence of each factor in engine performance.

Unit 5

  1. Compare operating principles or supercharging and turbocharging by emphasizing the impact on air intake, combustion efficiency, and overall power output in internal combustion engines.
  2. An engine has a displacement of three liters and operates on a four-stroke cycle at 3600 RPM. The engine features a compression ratio of 9.5, square geometry (bore diameter is equal to the stroke length), and connecting rods with a length of 16.6 cm. Combustion concludes at 20° after TDC. The engine is connected to a dynamometer, registering a brake torque of 205 N-m at 3600 RPM. With air entering the cylinders at 85 kPa and 60°C, and a mechanical efficiency of 85%, calculate:
    (i) Brake power
    (ii) Indicated power
    (iii) Brake mean effective pressure
    (iv) Indicated mean effective pressure
  3. A six cylinder, gasoline engine operates on the four stroke cycle. The bore of each cylinder is 80 mm and the stroke is 100 mm. The clearance volume per cylinder is 70 cc. At the speed of 4100 rpm, the fuel consumption is 5.5 gm/sec and the torque developed is 160 Nm. Calculate:
    (i) Brake power
    (ii) Brake mean effective pressure
    (iii) Brake thermal efficiency if the calorific value of the fuel is 44000 kJ/kg and
    (iv) Relative efficiency on a brake power basis assuming the engine works on the constant volume cycle y 1.4 for air.
  4. During the trial of a four stoke, single cylinder, oil engine the following observations were recorded: bore 300 mm. stroke 400 mm, speed = 200 rpm, duration of trial = 60 minutes. fuel consumption = 7.050 kg, calorific value = 14000 kJ/kg, area of indicator diagram = 322 mm², length of indicator diagram = 62 mm, spring index = 1.1 bar/mm, dead load on the brake drum = 140 kg, spring balance reading = 5 kg, brake drum diameter 1600 mm, total weight of cooling water 495 kg, temperature rise of cooling water = 38°C, temperature of exhaust gases = 300°C, air consumption = 311 kg; specific heat of exhaust gases = 1.004 kJ/kg K; specific heat of water 4.186 kJ/kg K; room temperature = 20°C. Determine
    (1) Brake power
    (ii) Indicated power
    (iii) Mechanical efficiency
    (iv) Indicated thermal efficiency.
  5. A full load test was conducted on a two stroke engine and the following results were obtained:
    Speed of engine 500 rpm; Brake load 500 N; Air/fuel ratio 30; oil consumption = 5kg/hr; Room temperature 25°C; Atmospheric pressure = 1 bar; diameter of cylinder = 22cm; stroke length 28cm; Brake diameter 1.6m. Calculate the volumetric efficiency and brake specific fuel consumption.
  6. The following results refer to at test on a four stroke petrol engine: The diameter of the cylinder is 30 cm and stroke length of the piston is 45 cm. The Engine runs at the speed of 1000 rpm. The brake specific fuel consumption is 0.35 kg/kWh. The calorific value of the fuel is 43,900 kJ/kg. The indicated mean effective pressure is 540 kPa. Calculate the following:
    (i) Indicated thermal efficiency
    (ii) Brake thermal efficiency
    (iii) Mechanical efficiency
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ME3491 Theory of Machines Important Questions

ME3491 Theory of Machines Important Questions

Unit 1

  1. For the mechanism shown in figure 11(a), determine the angular velocity of link AB. 

  2. The following data relate to a circular cam operating a flat-faced follower:
    Least diameter = 40 mm
    Lift 12 mm
    Angle of action = 160 degree
    Speed 500 rpm
    If the period of acceleration of the follower is 60 degree of the retardation during the lift, determine the main dimensions of the cam and acceleration at the main points. Also, find the maximum acceleration and deceleration during the lift.
  3. Sketch and explain any four inversions of four bar mechanism with its applications.
  4. In the mechanism, as shown in Figure. 1 the crank OA rotates at 20 r.p.m anticlockwise and gives motion to the sliding blocks B and D. The dimensions of the various links are OA 300 mm; AB = 1200 mm; BC450 mm and CD = 450 mm. 
    For the given configuration, determine (i) velocity of sliding at B and D, (ii) Angular velocity of CD.

  5. Explain the three inversions of double slider-crank chain with suitable example.
  6. The lengths of crank and connecting rod of a horizontal reciprocating engine are 125 mm and 500 mm respectively. The crank is rotating at 600 rpm. When the crank has turned 45° from inner dead centre, find analytically, (1) the velocity and acceleration of the slider and (2) the angular velocity and angular acceleration of the connecting rod.
  7. Derive expressions for displacement, velocity and acceleration for a tangent cam operating radial-translating roller follower;
    (i) When the contact is on straight flank, and
    (ii) When the contact is on circular nose.

Unit 2

  1.  Explain the working principle and application of a simple gear train. Derive the expression for the gear ratio in a simple gear train.
  2. Figure 12(b) shows an epicyclic gear train in which the driving gear A has 20 teeth, the fixed annular gear C has 150 teeth and the ratio of teeth in gears D and E is 21:50. If 2 kW of power at a speed of 800 rpm is supplied to the gear A, determine the speed and the direction of rotation of gear E. Also, find the fixing torque required at the gear C. 

  3. Derive an expression for the minimum number of teeth required on the pinion in order to avoid interference in involute gear teeth when it meshes with wheel.
  4. An epicyclic gear train, as shown in Figure.2, has a sun wheel S of 30 teeth and two planet wheels P-P of 50 teeth. The planet wheels mesh with the internal teeth of a fixed annulus A. The driving shaft carrying the sun wheel, transmits 4 kW at 300 r.p.m. The driven shaft is connected to an arm which carries the planet wheels. Determine the speed of the driven shaft and the torque transmitted, if the overall efficiency is 95%. 

  5. Two 20° involute spur gears have a module of 10 mm. the addendum is one module. The larger gear has 50 teeth and the pinion 13 teeth. Does the interference occur? If it occurs, to what value should the pressure angle be changed to eliminate interference?
  6. An epicyclic gear train consists of a sun wheel S, a stationary internal gear E and three identical planet wheels P carried on a star shaped planet carrier C. The size of different toothed wheels are such that the planet carrier C rotates at 1/5th of the speed of the sun wheel S. The minimum numbers of teeth on any wheel is 16. The driving torque on the wheel is 100 N-m. Determine number of teeth on different wheels of the train and torque necessary to keep the internal gear stationary. 

Unit 3

  1. If the capacity of a single-plate clutch decreases by 13% during the initial wear period, determine the minimum value of the ratio of internal diameter to external diameter for the same axial load. Consider both the sides of the clutch plate to be effective.
  2. In a belt drive, the mass of the belt is 1 kg/m length and its speed is 6 m/s. The drive transmits 9.6 kW of power. Determine the initial tension in the belt and the strength of the belt. The coefficient of friction is 0.25 and the angle of lap is 202 degree.
  3. The pitch of 50 mm mean diameter threaded screw of a screw jack is12.5mm. The coefficient of friction between the screw and the nut is 0.13. Determine the torque required on the screw to raise a load. of 25 kN, assuming the load to rotate with the screw. Determine the ratio of the torque required to raise the load to the torque required to lower the load and also the efficiency of the machine.
  4. A single plate clutch (both sides effective) is required to transmit 26.5 kW at 1600 r.p.m. The outer diameter of the plate is limited to 300 mm and intensity of pressure between the plates is not to exceed 68.5 kN/m². Assuming uniform wear and a coefficient of friction 0.3, show that the inner diameter of the plates is approximately 90 mm.
  5. A leather belt is required to transmit 7.5 kW from a pulley 1.2 m in diameter, running at 250 rpm the angle embraced is 165° and the coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley is 0.3, if the safe working stress for the leather belt is 1.5 MPa, density of leather 1 Mg/m³ and the thickness of bell 10 mm, determine the width of the belt taking centrifugal tension into account.
  6. Derive the expression for the length of belt in open belt drive.

Unit 4

  1. A truss is composed of three members and supported by a pin joint at each end. The members are made of steel and have cross-sectional areas of 2 cm², 3 cm² and 4 cm³ respectively. The truss is loaded with a force of 500 N applied at an angle of 60 degrees to the horizontal. Determine the axial forces in each of the members and draw the free body diagram..
  2. Explain D’Alembert’s principle and its significance in dynamic force analysis.
  3. The Figure. 3 shows the four bar mechanism and external forces and torques are exerted on or by the mechanism. Sketch the free body diagram of each part of the each mechanism including frame. Neglect friction between the links/pairs. 

  4. The crank pin circle radius of a horizontal engine is 300 mm. The mass of the reciprocating parts is 250 kg. When the crank has travelled 60° from I.D.C, the difference between the driving and the back pressures is 0.35 N/mm². The connecting rod length between centres is 1.2m and the cylinder bore is 0.5 m. If the engine runs at 250 r.p.m and if the effect of piston rod diameter is neglected calculate (i) pressure on slide bars (ii) thrust in the connecting rod (iii) tangential force on the crank pin and (iv) Turning moment on the crank shaft.
  5.  Enumerate the steps involved in determining the various forces on the links and torque applied, when a four-bar mechanism is subjected to an external force F on any one of its links.
  6. The length of crank and connecting rod of a horizontal engineer are 200 mm and 1 m respectively. The crank is rotating at 400 rpm. When the crank has turned through 30° from the inner dead centre, the difference of pressure between cover and piston rod is 0.4 N/mm². If the mass of the reciprocating parts is 100 kg and cylinder bore is 0.4 meters, then calculate;
    (i) Inertia force
    (ii) Force on piston
    (iii) Piston effort
    (iv) Thrust on the sides of the cylinder walls
    (v) Thrust in the connecting rod
    (vi) Crank effort.

Unit 5

  1. A shaft carries four masses A, B, C and D of magnitude 200 kg, 300 kg, 400 kg and 200 kg respectively and revolving at radii 80 mm, 70 mm, 60 mm and 80 mm in planes measured from A at 300 mm, 400 mm and 700 mm, the angles between the cranks measured anticlockwise are A to B 45°, B to C 70° and C to D 120°. The balancing masses are to be placed in planes X and Y. The distance between the planes A and X is 100 mm, between X and Y is 400 mm and between Y and D is 200 mm. if the balancing masses revolved at a radius of 100 mm, find their magnitudes and angular positions.
  2. Four masses A, B, C and D are attached to a shaft and revolve in the same plane. The masses are 12 kg, 10 kg, 18 kg and 15 kg respectively and their radii of rotations are 40 mm, 50 mm, 60 mm and 30 mm. The angular position of the masses B, C and D are 60 deg 135 deg and 270 deg from the mass A. Find the magnitude and position of the balancing mass at a radius of 100 mm.
  3. The disc of torsional pendulum has a moment of inertia of 600kg – c * m ^ 2 and is immersed in a viscous fluid. The brass shaft is attached to it is of 10 cm diameter and 40 cm long. When the pendulum is vibrating, the observed amplitudes are 9 deg 6 deg and 4°. Determine
    (i) Logarithmic decrement
    (ii) Damping torque at unit velocity
    (iii) Periodic time of vibration
    Assume for the brass shaft G = 4.4 * 10 ^ 10 * N / (m ^ 2) . What would be the frequency be if the disc is removed from the viscous fluid?
  4. Explain the method of finding the counter-masses in two planes to balance the dynamic unbalance of rotating masses.
  5. A torsional system is shown in figure 15(b). Find the frequencies of torsional vibrations and the positions of the nodes. Also, find the amplitudes of vibrations. G = 84 x 10² N/m² 

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PH3251 Materials Science Important Questions

PH3251 Materials Science Important Questions

Unit 1

  1. Explain the concepts of Nucleation and growth. Describe the Homogeneous and Heterogeneous process of nucleation with necessary diagrams.
  2. Discuss in detail the edge and screw dislocations with neat diagram. Give a note on their effect on crystal stability.
  3. Describe the various types of crystal imperfections in detail.
  4.  Explain the arrangement of atoms in FCC and HCP unit cell with neat sketch.
  5. With neat diagram, explain BCC and FCC crystal structures.
  6. Explain grain and twin boundary imperfections in crystals.
  7. Explain homogeneous and heterogeneous nucleation processes in crystal growth.

Unit 2

  1. Derive expression for electrical conductivity and thermal conductivity on the basis of classical free electron theory.
  2.  Explain the ferromagnetic domain theory in detail and discuss exchange interaction in ferromagnetic materials with suitable example.
  3. Derive an expression for electrical and thermal conductivities of metal. Using classical free electron theory.
  4. Arrive the formula for density of states in metals using quantum free electron theory.
  5. Derive the expression for density of energy states.
  6.  Explain domain theory of ferromagnetism and energies involved in domain growth.

Unit 3

  1. Explain the variation of carrier concentration in n-type and p-type semiconductor with temperature.
  2. What is Hall effect? Derive an expression for Hall Coefficient and Hall angle. Describe an experiment for the measurement of the hall co-efficient. Mention its applications.
  3. Derive an expression for carrier concentration in intrinsic semiconductor.
  4. Explain the theory of Hall effect and determine the Hall Voltage and Hall Co-efficient for p type semiconductor.
  5. Derive an expression for electron and hole concentration in intrinsic semiconductor.
  6. Explain Hall effect phenomena and obtain an expression for Hall coefficient.

Unit 4

  1. Briefly discuss the modulator and switching devices with neat sketch. Also give an explanation for optical process in quantum wells.
  2.  Explain with suitable diagram how laser action is achieved in homo junction and hetero junction diode laser.
  3. Explain the working mechanism of P-N light detectors.
  4. Describe the principle and working of LED.
  5. Elaborate the principle and working of a Solar cell.
  6. Explain the working of Laser diode with energy level diagram.

Unit 5

  1. Explain the principle, construction and working of single electron transistor in detail.
  2. Explain the types, properties and applications of carbon nanotubes in detail.
  3. Write note a Zener-Bloch oscillations, resonant tunnelling and quantum interference effect.
  4. Describe the density of states in quantum well, quantum wire and quantum dot structure.
  5. Explain Quantum confinement and Quantum structures with figures.
  6. Explain in detail the principle of single electron transistor and its performance.
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ET3491 Embedded Systems and IOT Design Important Questions

ET3491 Embedded Systems and IOT Design

Important Questions

Part A

1. Compare CISC and RISC.
2. List the various timers used in 8051 microcontroller.
3. Mention the features of ARM instruction set that make it suitable for embedded applications.
4. What are assembler directives? List the examples.
5. Define multitasking.
6. What happens when dead lock occurs?
7. Identify the challenges and issues of an IoT.
8. Compare Things of IoT and Machines in M2M.
9. What are the GPIO pins used in Raspberry Pi board?
10. List the impact of IoT in agriculture.

Part B

1. Draw the architecture of 8051 microcontroller and explain how the various units interact in executing an instruction.

2.  Illustrate serial communication interface supported by 8051 microcontroller.

3. Explain the features and classifications of ARM instruction set.

4. Outline the significances of operating modes in ARM processor. Explain the various operating modes.

5. Suppose that processes P1, P2, P3 and P4 arrive at the system at times 0, 0, 3, 4 with CPU processing times of 6, 2, 1 and 4 respectively. Apply the following scheduling policies to draw the Gantt chart and calculate the average waiting time and average turnaround time:
(i) First come first serve
(ii) Round robin with a quantum size of 2 (arriving jobs join the end of queue)
Justify the best of the above two algorithms for the mentioned scenario.

6. Explain the three different states of tasks in real time operating system with a state transition diagram. List the conditions under which a running task can go to the ready to run state and the conditions under which a running task can go to the waiting state.

7 Illustrate with an example of IoT service in detail that follows request response model and publish-subscribe communication model.

8 With the help of neat diagrams, explain the different levels of IoT with an example.

9 Develop an automatic refrigerator light system with LED, switch using raspberry pi hardware module and also develop a python program to support the working of that design.

10 Develop a python program for sending an email, when a switch is pressed on Raspberry pi module.

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EC3491 Communication Systems Important Questions

EC3491 Communication Systems Important Questions

Unit 1

  1. Draw and explain the working of a square law modulator and square law detector.
  2. Explain super heterodyne receiver and its advantages over Tuned Radio-Frequency receivers.
  3. State and illustrate Hilbert transform.
  4. State and prove any three properties of Hilbert transform.
  5. Elaborate on pre-envelope and complex envelope amplitude modulation techniques.
  6. Derive the mathematical expressions for DSB-SC and SSB-SC modulated signals.

Unit 2

  1. Derive the output signal-to-noise ratio for an AM receiver using envelope detection and hence obtain the figure of merit, assuming that the noise is additive, white and Gaussian. Compare the results with that of SSB and DSB-SC receivers.
  2. Draw and explain PPM and PWM signal generation circuit for PAM signal.
  3. Compare PAM, PPM and PWM.
  4. If the analog signal to be quantized (unipolar quantization with 4 bits) has a range from 0 V to 10 V, determine number of quantization level, quantization step (resolution), quantization error when the analog input is 7.4 V, quantization level when the analog voltage is 7.4 V, and its binary code.
  5. Differentiate between TDM and FDM. Give one application for each.

Unit 3

  1. Derive the expressions for quantization noise, receiver noise and overall signal-to-noise ratio of a DM system.
  2. Explain the operation of a cyclic code (7,3) with a suitable generator polynomial.


Unit 4

  1. Derive the probability of error for Binary FSK modulation scheme and compare its BER performance with that of BPSK modulation scheme.
  2. Derive the expression for the bit error probability of a QPSK system.
  3. Compare the merits and demerits of BPSK and QPSK w.r.t power spectral density (PSD) and bit error rate (BER) with essential illustration.


Unit 5

  1. Discuss the different modulation schemes in digital communication and derive the probability of error for any bandwidth efficient modulation technique.
  2. State and prove Nyquist first criterion for zero ISI.
  3. Explain in detail about Channel Equalizer by focusing more on zero forcing equalizer (ZFE) and minimum mean-square error equalizer (MMSEE) with necessary figures, block diagrams and mathematical expressions.
  4. Illustrate and elaborate the following concepts with mathematical expressions.
    (i) Receiver Noise.
    (ii) Probability of False Alarm.
    (iii) The Matched Filter.
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EC3492 Digital Signal Processing Important Questions

EC3492 Digital Signal Processing

Important Questions

Unit 1

  1. Draw radix 4 butterfly structure for (DIT) FFT algorithm.
  2. Two finite duration sequence are given by x(n) = sin(ηπ/2) for n = 0,1,2,3 h(n)=2n for n=0,1,2,3. Determine circular convolution using DFT & IDFT method.
  3.  Determine and sketch the magnitude and phase response of y(n) + 1/2 * [x(n) + x(n – 2)]
  4.  Determine X(k) for N = 8 using DIT-FFT algorithm for the given function below: x(n) = 2 ^ n

Unit 2

  1.  Distinguish between FIR and IIR filters.
  2.  Discuss the properties of Butterworth filter and Chebyshev filter.

  3. Using the bilinear transform design a high-Pass filter, monotonic in pass-band with cut-off frequency of 1000 Hz and down 10 dB at 350 Hz. The sampling frequency is 5000 Hz.

Unit 3

  1. Discuss in detail about FIR filter design using windows.
  2. Explain Finite word length effects in FIR filters.

  3. Design a high pass filter using hamming window with a cut-off frequency of 1.2 radians/sec and N = 9

Unit 4

  1. Give the effective of quantization noise in signal processing and also mention input/output quantization.
  2. Write in detail about Finite word length effects.
  3. Find the steady state variance of the noise in the output due to quantization of input for the first order filter.
    y(n) = ay(n – 1) + x(n)
  4. Consider the following second order IIR filter H(z) find the effect on quantization on pole locations of the given system function in direct form and in cascade form. Take b = 3 bits. 

Unit 5

  1. Discuss the sampling rate conversion by rational factor.
  2. Explain in detail about DSP architecture.
  3. Discuss the poly-phase structure of interpolator and decimator.
  4. Describe the features of adaptive filters and any two applications of adaptive filters.